Please give opinion on this grading question.

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Assume someone makes a play on Wade with a line of 1 1/2 three pointers made. The stipulation listed, was that Wade must start the game.

Lets say the person played the under. Wade starts the game, but he doesn't happen to attempt a three pointer this particular game. Should the wager be graded as a winner or a push?

Thanks for your opinions.
 

It's like sum fucking Beckett play that we're rehe
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Winner.

Was this V-Wager? they used to do those typres of things, especially the "must start"

pull up the wager in the history to see if it also states "must attemt at least 1 three point shot"
 

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Fishhead said:
Is this a trick question?

No trick question. The facts of the matter are exactly how I said. Would like some more opinions.
 

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I had one at v-wager.

It was NFL 2 rushers vs. 2 rushers. It said all players must play. 3 of the 4 played as usual but 1 of them was suited up but didn't play coach's decision. They voided the whole wager. I accepted that "play" meant being included on one active play in the game. But I wonder what they would have done if he had played a play but didn't have a rushing attempt.

But in this case, assuming the stipulation is as as posted here, it's an obvious winner.
 

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Okay guys, I think we have a very easy ruling, everyone agrees with me, except ofcourse the book. Thanks for the opinions.
 

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royalfan said:
Okay guys, I think we have a very easy ruling, everyone agrees with me, except ofcourse the book. Thanks for the opinions.

If there was no stipulation posted that he must attempt a 3-point shot, you have a definite winner.
 

I am the beetman, goo goo g'joob.
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Is sportsbook.com still playing games with that prop? That should be a winner unless they stipulated "must attempt a 3 pointer for action."
 

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This was all for a $20 bet also, no doubt a winner, calling Chuck !
 

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Double check the rules. If there isn't a requirement of at least one attempt, ask for a regrade. If they decline, go to SBR.
 

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