Was over thinking this way too much. Talked to a guy at work about this and it makes sense that if the ball bounces out of play before reaching past 1st or 3rd then Foul ball. Simple as that.
However.
Is it foul if it bounces out of play beyond 1st or 3rd? That's the question. If that's the rule that it is foul, then it's just flat out foul. That's it. I'm going to do more research and return with the exact baseball rule definition on this. Back Later.
However.
Is it foul if it bounces out of play beyond 1st or 3rd? That's the question. If that's the rule that it is foul, then it's just flat out foul. That's it. I'm going to do more research and return with the exact baseball rule definition on this. Back Later.
Correct...contact with the base makes it automatically a fair ball
In the case of the pitcher's rubber, it's the only object within fair territory where a batted ball could actually rebound towards foul ground. If the ball goes into foul ground (and in front of first or third base) before being touched by a defender, it's essentially the same as a slow roller or bunt that moves from fair territory into foul ground before being touched
I agree with Enfuego here. It is like a ball hitting a part of compacted dirt on the fair side of the foul line and causing the ball to suddenly go foul before the 1st/3rd base.
Whether the ball was batted *directly* to the pitcher's rubber OR bounced towards the pitcher's rubber doesn't matter -- if both scenarios lead the ball into the foul territory before the 1st/3rd base, then it's a foul ball.
I believe I do recall a couple of times where a ball hit the rubber... and it could have gone into foul territory, but the pitcher or catcher usually manages to grab it before going into foul territory and throw to 1st in time anyway. So it'd be quite hard to find a video of the ball being rolled out into foul territory without the ball being touched.
* CalvinTy
I was first made aware of this rule in 'Baseball Digest'. Remember that book? Anyway it described a play where a better hit a line drive off the mound (didn't hit the dirt and bounced back behind the plate, maing it a foul ball. I knew the rule existed, but never came close to seeing it happen. I think the uver/under for the next 120 years is 3.@)
The rule that I quoted mentions the ball passing first or third, not hitting the bag and going foul before passing the base.
So if we are to believe your account then the difference between a ball hitting first or third base and a ball hitting the pitcher's mound is that if a ball hits first or third it is automatically a fair ball. This is since those are the dividing points between balls rolling foul from the infield and being called foul versus a ball hitting in the outfield and rolling into foul territory yet still being a fair ball.
hno:
