and what is the "average" swing +/- wise from ML to -1.5 RL?
Convert the no-vig line into a percentage of that team winning, then subtract the chance of it winning times the chance of it winning by one run.
For example, if there is a game with a no-vig line of +100, both the home and road teams have a 50% chance of winning. The no-vig on the home team -1.5 would then be (0.50) - (0.50 * ~0.34) = 0.33, which would make the no-vig +200. For the road team it would be (0.50) - (0.50 * 0.22) = 0.39, which would be around +155
If the no-vig on the home team was instead -350, their -1.5 line would be (0.78) - (0.78 * 0.34) = 0.52 or -110. Which suggests either the data is slightly off, or there is good value taking the +1.5 against Kershaw
Of course you have to remember that the chance of it being a one run game changes significantly based on the total. Which is why the Red Sox are -130 to -140 on the run line at home today despite having a 31% chance of losing: there is a 58% chance the game gets to 10 runs or more, making it much less likely they win by exactly one run.